New Delhi: The three-language formula proposed in the National Education Policy (NEP), 2020, is at the centre of the political row between the DMK-led Tamil Nadu government and the central government. Here is an explainer of what the formula is:

1. What is three-language formula?

The three-language formula in NEP 2020 recommends that students learn three languages, at least two of which must be native to India. This formula applies to both government and private schools, giving states the flexibility to choose languages without any imposition.

2. What is the history of three-language formula?

The formula was first proposed by the Education Commission (1964-66), officially known as the Kothari Commission. It was formally adopted in the National Policy on Education (NPE) 1968 under then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. The policy was reaffirmed in NPE 1986 under PM Rajiv Gandhi and revised in 1992 by Narasimha Rao’s Congress government to promote linguistic diversity and national unity.

The formula included three languages — mother tongue or regional language, official language and a modern Indian or European language.

3. What does NEP 2020 say about three-language formula?

The NEP proposes an “early implementation of the three-language formula to promote multilingualism” from the school level. The document states that the three-language formula will continue to be implemented “while keeping in mind the Constitutional provisions, aspirations of the people, regions, and the Union, and the need to promote multilingualism as well as promote national unity.”

However, the NEP also states that there will be greater flexibility in the three-language formula, and no language will be imposed on any state. The policy states that the three languages learned by children will be the choices of states, regions, and of course, the students themselves, so long as at least two of the three languages are native to India.

4. What about foreign languages?

According to NEP 2020, in addition to Indian languages and English, students at the secondary level can also learn Korean, Japanese, French, German and Spanish, among other foreign languages.

5. What is Tamil Nadu’s opposition?

The state has historically opposed the three-language formula. In 1937, the then Madras government, headed by C Rajagopalachari, introduced compulsory Hindi in schools. This move sparked widespread protests by the Justice Party and Dravidian leaders like Periyar. The policy was revoked in 1940, but anti-Hindi sentiments persisted.

When the three-language formula was introduced in 1968, Tamil Nadu opposed it, seeing it as an attempt to impose Hindi. Under Chief Minister C N Annadurai, the state adopted a two-language policy, teaching only Tamil and English. Tamil Nadu remains the only state that has never implemented the three-language formula, choosing English over Indian languages, including Hindi and other regional languages.

6. What is the fresh trigger?

Tamil Nadu’s refusal to implement key aspects of NEP 2020, particularly the three-language formula, has resulted in the Centre withholding Rs 573 crore in central education assistance under the Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA). According to policy rules, states must comply with NEP guidelines to receive SSA funding, of which 60 per cent is provided by the Centre to states like Tamil Nadu.

PTI

Bhubaneswar: Odisha government will begin the 2025-26 PG admission process earlier than in previous years, with CAF submission starting March 10.

According to an official press release, students aspiring for PG admission must appear for the Common PG Entrance Test (CPET), scheduled for the first week of May. Selection will be based on merit, considering the marks obtained in the entrance exam.

The press release added that to ensure the timely completion of academic sessions and examinations, the higher education department has set a target to begin PG courses in universities and colleges by July 10.

Also Read: Two injured in fire at Cuttack building, suspected to have started from EV charging point

PNN

A man earning Rs 82,000 per month has sparked a heated debate online after revealing that his salary is not enough to support his family. Turning to Reddit for advice, he sought ways to earn an additional Rs 15,000 to Rs 20,000 per month, saying he was struggling to manage expenses despite a full-time job. His post has since gone viral, with social media users split over whether his financial struggle is justified.

The man, who works a 9-to-6 job, later explained that a significant portion of his income—Rs 36,000—goes toward repaying a Rs 46 lakh home loan, leaving him with limited financial flexibility. With job opportunities scarce in his town and family constraints preventing relocation, he turned to Reddit for guidance on side income opportunities.

“So I work in a 9-6 job and earn 82000/- rupees per month. However, my income is not sufficient to run a family as I have a large chunk of a Home Loan to pay for. I am looking for ideas via which I can generate some extra income,” he wrote in his post.

He listed his skills, including public speaking, customer service, and designing via Canva and PowerPoint, hoping to find something that fits his schedule.

“I am good at public speaking, customer service, designing via Canva and PowerPoint, and usually read history and literature to learn more about them. Can you all please guide me on what I can do that fits my schedule and I can earn a little more, like 15-20k rupees a month?” he added.

His post received a flood of reactions. While some sympathized with his situation and offered practical solutions, others were baffled that a salary of Rs 82,000 wasn’t enough.

“The only option is to upskill and switch jobs,” one user suggested. Another advised, “Start a YouTube channel.”

Some users recommended flexible side gigs instead of a traditional second job. “More than a second job, you need more of a side hustle that generates some extra income as your current schedule might not allow a second job. There are ways to generate online income which is not a get-rich-quick scheme but needs effort. I am working on some internet businesses too, generating extra money. We can connect if you want to,” one user commented.

Also Read: Sensex falls below 73k-mark; Nifty drops 50 points on weak global peers, relentless FII selling

Another suggested he leverage his public speaking skills. “You could take up a guest lecturer role at some nearby local MBA colleges. As you mentioned, you are good at public speaking, literature, and history. Try to develop a curiosity around the evolution of strategy from wars to businesses. This concept will be intriguing to a lot of young students, and also colleges need some good guest faculty to teach their students on these topics, as the academic curriculum for the same topic would be very boring.”

While the debate rages on, the man’s post has shed light on the financial challenges even well-earning professionals face, particularly those managing large home loans.

PNN

Bhubaneswar: The authorities of Odisha’s Board of Secondary Education (BSE) admitted a discrepancy in the question paper of the Science subject, the examination of which was held Saturday.

The students and teachers found the discrepancy after the question papers were distributed among the candidates appearing in the annual matriculation examination in 3,111 centres across the state.

It was found that in set-C of the Science question paper, the total marks are 96 and not the required 100. However, in three other sets of the same subject, questions for full 100 marks were there.

“A question carrying 4 marks was missing in the ‘C’ set question paper. The Board will look into the matter and the students will not be affected, the Board will take some measures during the evaluation of answer sheets,” BSE President Srikant Tarai told reporters.

The BSE president said that 11 students were also caught using unfair means during the exam and a decision about them will be taken by a committee later.

PTI

Bhubaneswar: The annual Plus II examinations conducted by the Council of Higher Secondary Education (CHSE), Odisha began across the state Tuesday.

Science stream students will appear for the Odia (MIL) paper today, while the examination for Arts and Commerce students will commence Wednesday.

This year, a total of 3,93,618 students are expected to take the exams at 1,276 centres across the state. The exams will be held from 10am to 1pm and will continue until March 27.

Also Read: Odisha Budget: ‘Focus on growth, but gaps in some sectors’

To prevent malpractice, CCTV cameras have been installed in all exam centres and a five-tier squad has been deployed.

It is expected that CHSE will declare the results within 45 days of the examination completion.

PNN

Bhubaneswar: About half of Class-VIII students in the state don’t know basic arithmetic division and around 30 per cent struggle with subtraction, Odisha Assembly was informed Friday.

In a written reply to a query, School and Mass Education Minister Nityananda Gond said, “According to the Annual Status of Education Report (ASER)-2024, 69.5 per cent of Class-VIII students were able to perform subtraction, and 48.5 per cent of students can do division, against the national average of 68.5 per cent and 45.8 per cent, respectively.”

Quoting the ASER report, Gond said, “The number of Class-VIII students who were able to do subtraction has increased by 6 per cent during the last decade (2014 to 2024).”

Similarly, the percentage of such students who were able to do division also increased by 11 per cent during the period, he added while replying to a query by Baliguda MLA Chakramani.

“Odisha students’ performance was better than the national average in 2024,” he claimed.

The minister further said the state government has been distributing Odia, English, and mathematics workbooks to Class-VIII students for practice.

Besides, the government has planned to provide necessary study materials to the students for their education.

Accordingly, proposals have been made to include it under the Annual Action Plan of Samagra Shiksha Yojana and the budget 2025-26, he added.

PTI

New Delhi: Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) has introduced certain changes in its online application system for the civil services preliminary exam after aspirants complained of technical glitches while applying through it, according to an official notice.

The Commission had recently extended the last date to apply for the civil services preliminary exam 2025 till February 18.

The UPSC said in the notice that some entries have been made “editable” in the one-time registration for filling up of the online application.

“In view of the queries/difficulties raised by the candidates in filling up the online application form for the civil services examination, 2025, the Commission has decided the following changes in the one-time registration (OTR) for filling up of the online application,” it said.

The candidates are “not allowed to make any change(s) in the columns relating to “Name (as per Class X)”, “Date of Birth”, “Father’s Name”, “Mother’s Name”, “Mobile Number” and “Email ID” in the OTR profile, the Commission said in the notice.

If a candidate has lost access to his/her registered mobile number but he/she has the access to his/her registered email ID, he/she can apply for change in the mobile number and in this case, an OTP will be sent to the registered email ID, it said.

In case a candidate has lost access to his/her registered email ID but has the access to his/her registered mobile number, he/she can apply for change in the email ID and in this case, an OTP will be sent to the registered mobile number, the notice said.

However, if a candidate reports that he/she has lost access to his/her registered mobile as well as registered email ID, the candidate will have to send a request to the Commission for making necessary changes at the (otrupsc@gov.in) along-with matriculation certificate, Aadhaar card or PAN card or Passport or driving license, recent passport size photograph and an undertaking in a prescribed format, it said.

The UPSC also said that the eligible PwBD (person with benchmark disability) candidates, who wish to seek assistance of ‘own scribe’, will have to mandatorily provide the details of the ‘own scribe’ for the civil services preliminary exam.

“The PwBD candidates, who wish to seek assistance of ‘own scribe’ for the CS (Main) exam, may voluntarily indicate the scribe details for CS (Main) while applying for CS (prelim) exam.”

“Such candidates may update/provide details of the ‘own scribe’ during the window, which will be made available to the candidates after the declaration of the result of CS (Prelim) Exam,” it said.

The PwBD candidates can also upload either the UDID PWD certificate issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment or the valid PwBD certificate in format as available on the Commission’s website.

The civil services examination is conducted annually by the UPSC in three stages — preliminary, main and interview — to select officers of the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Foreign Service (IFS) and Indian Police Service (IPS), among others.

The last date for registration for civil services preliminary exam 2025 and the Indian Forest Service (Preliminary) test was also recently extended till February 18, 2025 ( till 6 pm). Earlier, the last date to apply for the exams online was February 11.

Candidates are required to apply online by using the website http://upsconline.gov.in.

According to the Commission’s notice, in case a candidate’s name has changed and there is a mismatch with the name given in his/her matriculation or higher educational certificate, the candidate is required to submit a gazette notification to that effect.

“However, if the gazette notification is not available with them at present, they may upload the copy of the same during the window, which will be made available to the candidates after the declaration of the result of CS (Prelim) Exam,” it said.

The changes come in the backdrop of the controversy involving former IAS probationer Puja Khedkar, who was accused of cheating, wrongly availing Other Backward Class (OBC) and disability quota benefits to ensure her selection in the government service. She has denied all allegations though.

The UPSC said that the candidates having integrated master’s degree (graduation and post graduation) may fill the same course in their graduation as well as higher qualification column.

“The candidates are advised to go through the entries made by them in relevant columns before finally submitting the same. It may be noted that after submission of the application, the changes/corrections, if any, in the entries in the application form, can be carried out only during the one week correction window…,” the notice said.

A correction window will be open for applicants “till expiry of seven days” from the next day after the closure of application window i.e. from February 19 to 25.

The civil services preliminary examination is scheduled to be held on May 25.

The number of vacancies to be filled through the examination is expected to be approximately 979, which include 38 vacancies reserved for persons with benchmark disability category.

PTI

In most workplaces, strict rules are in place to maintain professionalism. However, a small tech company in Osaka, Japan, is taking an unconventional approach to employee satisfaction by offering free alcohol and ‘hangover leave’.

According to a report by Oddity Central, Trust Ring Co. Ltd. is offering free alcoholic drinks and ‘hangover leave’ as part of its office culture in an effort to attract new recruits.

A new approach to employee benefits 

While larger companies lure talent with high salaries and extensive benefits, Trust Ring Co., Ltd. has chosen a different strategy. Unable to match the budgets of more established firms, the company provides alcohol during working hours—at no cost to employees.

The company’s CEO actively participates in this unique office culture, even personally serving drinks to new employees to foster a relaxed and friendly environment. This unusual perk is designed to create a workplace where enjoyment and productivity go hand in hand, according to report.

‘Hangover leave’ to keep spirits high 

If an employee experiences the effects of alcohol, they are allowed 2-3 hours of leave to recover. This “hangover leave” is part of the company’s initiative to offer non-monetary incentives, creating an atmosphere that some may find more appealing than a higher paycheck, the report said.

The CEO of Trust Ring stated that, given the company’s financial limitations, its focus is on building a workplace that prioritizes employee satisfaction through a fun and flexible environment. With this approach, the company aims to retain staff by redefining the balance between work and enjoyment.

Also Read: No end to smuggling of seized minerals in Joda

A competitive edge with flexibility 

Although the company’s starting salary of 222,000 yen (approximately Rs 1.27 lakh) may not be as high as other tech firms, employees receive compensation for 20 hours of overtime. This combination of a flexible work culture and unique perks offers a refreshing take on workplace satisfaction, appealing to those seeking a more enjoyable and relaxed office experience.

PNN

Cuttack: Odisha Chief Minister Mohan Charan Majhi Tuesday announced that the state government will extend mid-day meal (MDM) scheme to students in Classes IX and X.

Speaking at an event in Cuttack, CM Majhi announced this decision.

The move comes after the government’s decision November 30 last year to increase material costs for midday meals in primary and upper primary schools under the PM Poshan scheme.

According to a notification from the Department of School & Mass Education to district collectors, the per-student meal cost for Classes I to V was raised from Rs 5.90 to Rs 7.64, while for Classes VI to VIII, it was increased from Rs 8.82 to Rs 10.94.

PNN

New Delhi: Fourteen candidates from across the country have bagged perfect score in the first edition of engineering entrance exam JEE-Main 2025 with maximum of them being from Rajasthan, the National Testing Agency (NTA) announced on Tuesday.

Twelve out of the 14 top scorers are from general category and one each from OBC and SC categories.

More than 12.58 lakh candidates had appeared for the first edition of the crucial exam.

Among the candidates who secured an NTA score of 100, five are from Rajasthan, two each from Delhi and Uttar Pradesh and one each from Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Telangana and Maharashtra.

According to NTA officials, NTA score is not the same as percentage of marks obtained but normalised scores.

NTA scores are normalised scores across multi-session papers and are based on the relative performance of all those who appeared for the examination in one session, a senior official explained.

The marks obtained are converted into a scale ranging from 100 to 0 for each session of examinees, the official added.

The examination was held in 13 languages including Assamese, Bengali, English, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu.

The exam was also conducted in 15 cities outside India including Manama, Doha, Dubai, Kathmandu, Muscat, Riyadh, Sharjah, Singapore, Kuwait City, Kuala Lumpur, Abu Dhabi, West Java, Washington, Lagos and Munich.

While the first edition of the exam was conducted in January-February, the second edition is scheduled in April. Based on the results of JEE-Mains Paper 1 and Paper 2, the candidates will be shortlisted to appear for the JEE-Advanced exam, which is a one-stop exam to get admission into the 23 premier Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs).

After both sessions of JEE (Main)-2025 Examination, the ranks of the candidates will be released taking into consideration the best of the two NTA scores in accordance with the policy already made.

PTI

New Delhi: The National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) announced Friday that it will reintroduce one-year B.Ed and M.Ed courses starting in the 2026-27 academic session. This decision reverses a 2014 regulation that made both programs two years long.

The NCTE’s new draft rules, which were recently approved, will soon be open for public feedback. While the one-year programs will return, the two-year versions of B.Ed and M.Ed courses will remain available.

Changes to the one-year programs

The one-year M.Ed will be offered as a full-time course, while a two-year, part-time option will remain for working professionals. Students who have completed a four-year undergraduate degree or a postgraduate course will be eligible for the one-year B.Ed. Those with a three-year undergraduate degree will still need to complete the two-year program.

Rationale behind the change

Pankaj Arora, Chairman of the NCTE, explained that the two-year M.Ed program, which began in 2015, had not significantly advanced teacher education or the teaching profession. He noted that many institutions were experiencing vacant seats and that the curriculum had not been sufficiently updated. The redesigned one-year M.Ed will include research, fieldwork, and community engagement components.

Read Also: NEET UG 2025: New rule added for tie-breaking, check other major changes

Arora added that the change was in line with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, which allows for a one-year Master’s degree at level 6.5 of the National Higher Education Qualifications Framework (NHEQF). According to Arora, students who complete a four-year Integrated Teacher Education Program (ITEP) or a four-year undergraduate degree followed by a one-year B.Ed will meet this new level.

Introduction of ITEP and specialisations

The Integrated Teacher Education Program (ITEP) was introduced in the 2023-24 academic session in select colleges. It will become a regular offering starting in 2025-26, with new specialisations in Yoga, Physical Education, Sanskrit, and Art Education.

Arora said the NCTE is providing multiple pathways for aspiring teachers. Those who decide to enter the profession after Class 12 can enrol in ITEP, while those who complete a three-year degree will be eligible for the two-year B.Ed. Graduates with a four-year degree or postgraduates can opt for the one-year B.Ed.

Read Also: UPSC extends last date to apply for civil services prelims exam till Feb 18

The NCTE Chairman also emphasized that the restructured courses will align with the NEP’s focus on different school education levels, including foundational, preparatory, middle, and secondary education.

Reactions to the change

The NCTE’s decision has drawn mixed reactions from students and educators.

Gurleen Kaur Virk, a first-year B.Ed student at Doon Valley College, welcomed the move. She said, “It’s a good initiative by the regulatory body. Specifically for primary school teachers who have just done a bachelor’s degree, a two-year B.Ed is fine. But for TGT teachers who have a master’s degree, a one-year B.Ed makes sense.”

However, Manvi Verma, a former teacher and current PhD student, supported the change but expressed concerns about the potential impact on education quality. “It is beneficial only if the quality of education is not compromised,” Verma said. “If that doesn’t happen, then it’s great, and I am in support.”

The NCTE’s reintroduction of one-year B.Ed and M.Ed courses offers aspiring teachers more options to enter the profession at different stages of their academic journey.

PNN & Agencies

The State Bank of India (SBI) has yet to release the SBI Clerk Preliminary Exam 2025 admit card for candidates appearing for the Junior Associate (Customer Support & Sales) recruitment. According to the official notification, the admit cards are expected to be available by February 10, 2025. Candidates who have applied for bank jobs at SBI are advised to check the SBI career page regularly for updates.

SBI Clerk Prelims Exam 2025: Important dates

• Admit card expected release date: Feb. 10, 2025
• Exam dates: Feb. 22, 27, 28, and March 1, 2025
• Mode of exam: Online (Computer-based test)
• Selection process:
  • Phase 1: Preliminary examination
  • Phase 2: Main examination (scheduled for April 2025)

SBI Clerk Exam pattern 2025

The SBI Clerk Prelims exam consists of 100 objective-type questions divided into three sections:

1. English Language – 30 questions (30 marks)
2. Numerical Ability – 35 questions (35 marks)
3. Reasoning Ability – 35 questions (35 marks)

Each section is timed separately, and there is a negative marking of 0.25 marks for each incorrect answer. Candidates who clear the prelims will be eligible to appear for the SBI Clerk Mains Exam.

Read Also: NEET UG 2025: New rule added for tie-breaking, check other major changes

How to download SBI Clerk Prelims admit card 2025

Once released, candidates can download their SBI Clerk Admit Card 2025 by following these steps:

1. Visit the official SBI website – sbi.co.in.
2. Go to the “Careers” section and click on “Current Openings.”
3. Find the admit card link under “Recruitment of Junior Associates (Customer Support & Sales).”
4. Enter your credentials – registration number/roll number and password/date of birth.
5. Submit the details and download your admit card.
6. Print a copy to carry to the examination center.

Documents to carry for SBI Clerk Prelims Exam

Candidates must bring the following items to the exam center:

• Printed SBI Clerk Prelims admit card 2025
• Valid photo ID proof (Aadhaar card, passport, voter ID, PAN card, or driving license)
• Two passport-size photographs (same as uploaded in the application form)

Note: Ration cards and learner’s driving licenses are not accepted as valid ID proof.

SBI Clerk Exam Shift Timings (Expected)

The SBI Clerk exam is expected to be conducted in four shifts per day:

Candidates should check their admit card for the exact shift and reporting time.

Details mentioned on SBI Clerk Admit Card 2025

Candidates should verify the following details on their admit card:

• Candidate’s name
• Roll number/registration number
• Exam date and shift timing
• Reporting time
• Exam center details
• Photograph and signature
• Important exam day instructions

Also Read: UPSC extends last date to apply for civil services prelims exam till Feb 18

Key Reminders for SBI Clerk Prelims Exam 2025

• Candidates should reach the exam center at least 30 minutes before the reporting time.
• Electronic gadgets such as mobile phones, smartwatches, and calculators are strictly prohibited inside the exam hall.
• Rough work should be done only on the provided scratch paper.
• Candidates must follow all instructions given by the exam authorities.

For the latest updates and official announcements, visit the SBI career page.

PNN & Agencies

New Delhi: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) has extended the last date to apply for civil services preliminary examination 2025 till February 18.

The civil services examination is conducted annually by the UPSC in three stages –? preliminary, mains and interview –? to select officers of the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Foreign Service (IFS) and Indian Police Service (IPS), among others.

The last date for registration for Civil Services (Preliminary)-2025 and Indian Forest Service (Preliminary)-2025 exams “has been extended till 18.02.2025 (6 pm),” said a note put out by the Commission on its website.

A correction window will also be open for applicants “till expiry of seven days from the next day after the closure of application window i.e. from 19.02.2025 to 25.02.2025”, it said.

Earlier, the last date to apply for the exam online was February 11, 2025 till 6 pm.

Candidates are required to apply online by using the website http://upsconline.gov.in.

The UPSC note did not mention reasons behind extending the date of application.  Official sources said that some applicants had complained of certain glitches being faced by them while applying through the portal.

The civil services preliminary examination will be held on May 25.

The number of vacancies to be filled through the examination is expected to be approximately 979 which include 38 vacancies reserved for persons with benchmark disability category.

PTI

New Delhi: National Testing Agency (NTA) has introduced a new rule to break ties in the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test-Undergraduate (NEET UG 2025) scores if the existing methods fail to determine a rank.

If a tie remains unresolved after the existing seven-point method, an independent expert committee will guide the resolution through a “random process,” according to a NEET UG information bulletin.

The current tie-breaking rules prioritise higher marks in Biology (Botany & Zoology), followed by Chemistry and then Physics. If the tie persists, the proportion of incorrect to correct answers in each subject is considered.

The current tie-breaking criteria are as follows:

1. The candidate obtaining higher marks/percentile scores in Biology (Botany & Zoology) will be given preference in the All India Rank (AIR) list, followed by
2. The candidate who obtains higher marks/percentile score in Chemistry, followed by
3. The candidate obtaining higher marks/percentile score in Physics followed by
4. The candidate with less proportion of the number of attempted incorrect answers and correct answers in all the subjects in the test, followed by
5. The candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted incorrect answers and correct answers in Biology (Botany & Zoology), followed by
6. The candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted incorrect answers and correct answers in Chemistry, followed by
7. The candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted incorrect answers and correct answers in Physics.

The new rule serves as a final measure if all these criteria fail to break the tie.

Pre-COVID exam pattern for NEET UG 2025

Additionally, NTA has announced a return to the pre-COVID pattern for NEET UG 2025. The number of questions and the time allotted for the exam will be reduced, and optional questions, which were introduced during the pandemic, will no longer be applicable.

Notably, NTA February 7 released the notification for the NEET UG 2025. NEET UG candidates can apply at official NTA website i.e. neet.nta.nic.in.

PNN

New Delhi: The medical entrance exam NEET-UG will be conducted May 4, the National Testing Agency (NTA) announced Friday.

The application process for the the National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET)-UG began Friday and will conclude March 7. It is the largest entrance exam in the country in terms of the number of candidates appearing for the test.

In 2024, a record more than 24 lakh candidates took the exam. The NTA conducts the NEET every year for admission into medical colleges. A total of 1,08,000 seats are available for MBSS course. Approximately 56,000 of them are in government hospitals and about 52,000 in private colleges.

Admissions to undergraduate courses in Dentistry, Ayurveda, Unani and Siddha also utilise the results of the NEET for admission.

The NTA had last month announced that the crucial exam will continue to be conducted in pen and paper mode. The decision came after detailed deliberations between education and health ministries on whether to conduct the NEET-UG in pen and paper mode or online mode.

In the line of fire over alleged irregularities in NEET and PhD entrance NET, the Centre had in July set up a panel to ensure transparent, smooth and fair conduct of examinations by NTA.

According to the high-level panel headed by former ISRO Chief R Radhakrishnan, multi-stage testing for NEET-UG could be a viable possibility that needs to be followed up.

While NEET was last year plagued by several allegations of irregularities, including paper leaks, and litigation, UGC-NET was cancelled as the ministry received inputs that the integrity of the exam had been compromised. Both matters are being probed by the CBI.

PTI

Bhubaneswar: Odisha Chief Secretary Manoj Ahuja Tuesday directed all the district collectors and SPs to check malpractices during the upcoming Class-X and XII state board examinations.

During the day, Ahuja held a meeting through video conference with the collectors and the SPs on the smooth conduct of the two examinations.

More than 3.93 lakh students are expected to appear for the Class-XII theory examinations in 1,276 centres between February 18 and March 27.

The Council of Higher Secondary Education has set up 205 examination management hubs, where question papers will be stored, officials said.

Over 5.2 lakh students will appear for the Class-X board examination in 3,133 centres from February 21 to March 5.

The Class-X examinations will be conducted by the Board of Secondary Education.

The Chief Secretary asked the district authorities to ensure “round-the-clock foolproof security at the examination centres and hubs”.

Ahuja also directed officials to strictly implement the protocol set up for the smooth conduct of the two board examinations in the state.

He also asked them to ensure that no incident of question paper leak happens during the tests.

The government has imposed restrictions on entry with mobile phones and other electronic gadgets into the examination halls.

An additional district magistrate (ADM) rank officer will remain in charge of the examinations in each district, he said.

Besides, the district collectors have been asked to personally monitor the examinations.

The council and board authorities were also instructed to ensure full-proof arrangements for the exams.

Speaking to media persons after the meeting, Council of Higher Secondary Education’s controller of exams Prasanta Kumar Parida said, “This year, we have decided to deploy special squads at 35 places across 30 districts of Odisha in advance. Their identity would not be revealed to anyone and they will conduct surprise visits at the exam centres.”

All the centres would be under CCTV surveillance, he said, adding, “We have started preparing to declare the Class-XII results within 45 days of exams.”

PTI

Bhubaneswar: Council of Higher Secondary Education (CHSE) Odisha Tuesday announced that the annual Plus II examinations will commence February 18 and conclude March 28, 2025.

A total of 3,93,619 students from the Arts, Science, and Commerce streams are set to appear for the examinations, which will be held at as many as 1,276 centres across the state, the council added.

CHSE officials expressed confidence in maintaining examination integrity. Chief Secretary of Odisha has instructed district SPs to take strict action against any malpractice attempts, the officials informed.

Read Also: Rise in govt school enrolment during Covid reversed, full recovery from learning loss: Report

The officials added that to ensure smooth conduct of examination, a five-tier surveillance system has been implemented. Apart from the college-level squad led by superintendents, additional monitoring will be carried out by observer squads from hubs, district administration squads, and zonal squads.

Moreover, 35 special squads will be deployed across 30 districts from the Central office. The identities of these officials will remain confidential, and they will conduct surprise inspections at exam centres.

PNN

Bhubaneswar: Odisha government Tuesday announced that a house rent allowance would be provided to Fire and Emergency Service personnel who are staying in barracks and not provided with residential accommodation.

The government also increased the diet and mobility allowances for firefighters and officers.

According to a notification issued by the Home Department, the house rent allowance (HRA) will now be given to firemen, havildars and those in equivalent ranks of Odisha Fire & Emergency Service, who are staying in barracks and not provided with residential accommodation.

“The admissible rate shall be decided on the basis of place of posting of Odisha Fire & Emergency Service personnel, irrespective of the place of actual deployment,” it said.

The special diet allowance to personnel in the rank of fireman, havildars and those in equivalent ranks has been enhanced from Rs 900 to Rs 1,400 per month.

Monthly motorcycle or mobility allowance was earlier given to station officers and assistant fire officers, and is now extended to assistant station officers and those in equivalent ranks, the notification said.

The mobility allowance for officers and assistant officers has been enhanced from Rs 300 to Rs 1050.

Monthly mobility allowance for fireman, havildars and those in equivalent ranks has been enhanced from Rs 150 to Rs 300, the notification said, adding that the risk allowance to personnel from the rank of fireman to assistant fire officer has been increased from Rs 400 to Rs 1000 per month.

Taking to X, the Chief Minister’s Office (CMO) said, “Hon’ble CM Mohan Charan Majhi’s initiative towards social security of firefighters. For the welfare of firefighters who provide prompt services to people in various situations, their house rent.”

He added that with this decision as many as 6,058 Odisha Fire & Emergency Service personnel will be benefited.

ଅଗ୍ନିଶମ କର୍ମଚାରୀଙ୍କ ସାମାଜିକ ସୁରକ୍ଷା ଦିଗରେ ମାନ୍ୟବର ମୁଖ୍ୟମନ୍ତ୍ରୀ ଶ୍ରୀ ମୋହନ ଚରଣ ମାଝୀଙ୍କ ବଳିଷ୍ଠ ପଦକ୍ଷେପ। ବିଭିନ୍ନ ପରିସ୍ଥିତିରେ ଲୋକଙ୍କୁ ତ୍ୱରିତ ସେବା ଯୋଗାଉଥିବା ଅଗ୍ନିଶମ କର୍ମଚାରୀଙ୍କ କଲ୍ୟାଣ ପାଇଁ ଘରଭଡ଼ା ପ୍ରଦାନ ସହ ସେମାନଙ୍କ ଭତ୍ତା ବୃଦ୍ଧି କରାଯାଇଛି। ଏହାଦ୍ଵାରା ୬୦୫୮ ଅଗ୍ନିଶମ କର୍ମଚାରୀ ଉପକୃତ ହେବେ। pic.twitter.com/XWnH4jyVHV

— CMO Odisha (@CMO_Odisha) February 4, 2025

PTI

Mumbai: White-collar hiring activities in January witnessed 4 per cent growth driven by traditional sectors, including FMCG, pharma and insurance, according to a report released on Monday.

“In 2024, January had greeted us with a disappointing 11 per cent de-growth in hiring. In contrast, 2025 seems to have started on a positive note. The 4 per cent hiring growth is tempered as IT recovery settles in, however, strong growth in most core sectors, including FMCG, pharma, insurance and hospitality is a good sign and augurs well for a cracking 2025 in terms of white collar hiring,” Naukri Chief Business Officer Pawan Goyal said in a statement quoting NaukriJobSpeak Index.

The report revealed a steady hiring environment with strong performances in core sectors like FMCG (16 per cent), insurance (15 per cent), and pharma (11 per cent), and hospitality by 8 per cent, while IT hiring remained flattish, the report added.

The Naukri JobSpeak is a monthly index representing the Indian job market and hiring activity based on new job listings and job-related searches by recruiters on the resume database of Naukri.com.

Meanwhile, Rajasthan emerged as a standout performer in January’s hiring landscape with cities like Jodhpur and Udaipur recording impressive growth rates of 35 per cent and 32 per cent, respectively.

Jaipur also continued its upward trajectory with 21 per cent overall growth, said the report.

This regional dynamism extends beyond IT, with multiple sectors showing strong growth in non-traditional hubs, it added.

It was also witnessed in the aviation and aerospace industry, which recorded an exceptional 33 per cent year-on-year growth, with Delhi-NCR witnessing a staggering 77 per cent surge in hiring.

The sector’s growth is strategically focused on building mid-level expertise, with a 22 per cent increase in hiring for professionals with 4-7 years of experience, added the report.

PTI

New Delhi: Infrastructure expansion at the five new IITs to facilitate 6,500 more students, 10,000 new medical seats and a big Artificial Intelligence push. These are among the big announcements made by the government for the education sector in the 2025-26 budget.

The Ministry of Education has been allocated more than Rs 1.28 lakh crore in the Union Budget 2025-26, higher than the revised estimate of Rs 1.14 lakh crore in 2024-25.

While the Higher Education department has been allocated an amount of Rs 50,067 crore, the school education department has received Rs 78,572.

Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, who presented her eighth straight Union Budget, also said the government will launch ‘Bharatiya Bhasha Pushtak’ scheme to provide digital form of Indian language books for schools and higher education.

She announced the government will create additional infrastructure at five Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) and expand IIT Patna. The announcement to expand IIT Patna comes ahead of the Bihar Assembly polls due later this year.

“The total number of students in 23 IITs has increased by 100 per cent from 65,000 to 1.35 lakh in the past 10 years. Additional infrastructure will be created in the five IITs started after 2014 to facilitate education for 6,500 more students. Hostel and other infrastructure capacity at IIT Patna will also be expanded,” she said.

The IITs have been allocated an amount of Rs 11,349 crore in the union budget, up from a revised estimate of Rs 10,467 crore in current financial year.

Sitharaman announced that 10,000 additional seats will be added in medical colleges and hospitals next year towards the goal of adding 75,000 seats over the next five years.

“Our government has added almost 1.1 lakh undergraduate and postgraduate medical education seats in 10 years, an increase of 130 per cent. In the next year, 10,000 additional seats will be added in medical colleges and hospitals towards the goal of adding 75,000 seats in the next five years,” she said.

The FM also announced 10,000 fellowships will be provided for technology research in IITs and IISc over the next five years.

“Five national centres for excellence for skilling with global expertise and partnerships will be set up and 50,000 Atal Tinkering Labs will be set up in government schools in the next five years to cultivate scientific temper in young minds,” she said.

Sitharaman said broadband connectivity will be provided to all government secondary schools and primary healthcare centres in rural areas.

“I had announced three centres of excellence in AI for agriculture, sustainable cities, and health in 2023. Now, a Centre of Excellence in AI for education will be set with an outlay of Rs 500 crore,” she said, in a big Artificial Intelligence (AI) push in education.

From University Grants Commission (UGC) to National Council of Education Research and Training (NCERT), most bodies under the Ministry of Education have received an increased allocation.

Top business schools — Indian Institutes of Managements (IIMs), which witnessed consistent cut in their allocated budget in a push to make them self-reliant, have also received an increased allocation of Rs 251 crore as against a revised estimate of Rs 227 crore last year.

However, the budget granted to Indian Institute of Science, Education and Research (IISERs) has seen a drop of Rs 137 crore. Similarly, the allocated amount for World Class Institutions, has been reduced by more than 50 per cent. Last year, the amount allocated was Rs 1000 crore which has now been reduced to Rs 475 crore.

PTI